CSCS exam questions follow a consistent format that you can practise and master before walking into the real test. The CITB Health, Safety and Environment exam — across Operatives, Specialists, Supervisors and Managers and Professionals (MAP) versions — uses 50 multiple-choice questions in 45 minutes, with a strict 90% pass mark. Below are ten worked sample questions covering the highest-yield topics, plus the full breakdown of the question format, scoring rules and tricky patterns to watch out for. Every question is followed by the correct answer and a one-line explanation of why.
Quick Answer
50 questions, 4 options each, 45 minutes, pass mark 45/50 (90%). No negative marking — always answer every question. Practise with our free 50-question mock test or the 5-question sample test for a quick warm-up.
How many questions are on the CSCS exam?
The CITB Health, Safety and Environment test consists of 50 multiple-choice questions. The number is the same across every version — Operatives (Green Card route), Specialists, Supervisors (Gold Card route) and Managers and Professionals (Black/White Card route). What changes is the topic distribution, not the question count.
Question format — multiple choice with four options
Every CSCS exam question presents you with a scenario or a factual prompt and four possible answers labelled A to D. Three are wrong; one is correct. Around 4–6 questions per paper are “select two” questions, where both your selections must be correct to score the mark — there are no half marks. Questions are written in plain English and the on-screen audio reader will read them aloud through headphones if you find reading on screen difficult. Use the reader without hesitation — there is no penalty.
10 sample CSCS exam questions by topic
Below are ten representative questions with worked answers. Try to answer each one before reading the explanation. Score yourself out of 10 — if you score 8+, you are ready to take a full timed mock. If you score below 8, work through our CITB revision notes and try again.
Q1. What is the minimum height for a guardrail on a working platform under the Work at Height Regulations 2005?
- 450 mm
- 750 mm
- 950 mm ← Correct
- 1100 mm
Why: Guardrails must be at least 950 mm from the working platform, with an intermediate rail and a 150 mm toe board to prevent objects from falling.
Q2. At what daily noise exposure level is hearing protection mandatory and a hearing protection zone must be designated?
- 70 dB(A)
- 75 dB(A)
- 80 dB(A)
- 85 dB(A) ← Correct
Why: The upper exposure action value under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. At this level, employers must enforce hearing protection use and clearly mark the area.
Q3. The TILE approach to manual handling stands for:
- Task, Individual, Load, Environment ← Correct
- Time, Injury, Load, Effort
- Tools, Instructions, Lifting, Equipment
- Training, Insurance, Limits, Endurance
Why: TILE is the foundation of every manual handling risk assessment under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992.
Q4. A fire breaks out in a site canteen involving cooking oil in a deep fat fryer. Which extinguisher should you use?
- Water (red)
- Foam (cream)
- CO₂ (black)
- Wet chemical (yellow) ← Correct
Why: Cooking oil fires are Class F. Wet chemical is the only extinguisher type specifically designed for them — water and foam would spread the fire dangerously.
Q5. How often should a safety harness be formally inspected by a competent person?
- Every week
- Every month
- Every 6 months ← Correct
- Every year
Why: Safety harnesses require a formal documented inspection by a competent person every 6 months under PPE regulations, plus a pre-use check by the wearer.
Q6. What is the correct angle and base distance for a 4 m ladder leaning against a wall?
- 60° angle, 2 m base distance
- 70° angle, 1.3 m base distance
- 75° angle, 1 m base distance ← Correct
- 80° angle, 0.7 m base distance
Why: The 1:4 ratio means 1 unit out for every 4 units up. A 4 m ladder requires a base distance of 1 m to sit at the safe 75° angle.
Q7. Where would you find the specific hazards and safety precautions for a chemical product on site?
- The product's safety data sheet (SDS) ← Correct
- The site induction handbook
- The HSE website
- The product manufacturer's website
Why: Every hazardous substance on site must have an SDS available. It contains hazard identification, first aid measures, fire-fighting measures, handling, storage and exposure controls.
Q8. Within what timeframe must a specified injury (e.g. fractured wrist) be reported to the HSE under RIDDOR?
- Immediately, then in writing within 10 days ← Correct
- Within 24 hours
- Within 15 days
- Within 30 days
Why: Specified injuries (fractures other than fingers/toes, amputations, loss of sight, crush injuries, serious burns) must be reported to the HSE immediately and confirmed in writing within 10 days.
Q9. What is the standard voltage for portable electrical tools on a UK construction site?
- 230 V
- 110 V centre-tapped earth ← Correct
- 24 V
- 50 V
Why: 110 V CTE limits any single conductor to 55 V to earth, dramatically reducing the severity of any electric shock. Higher voltages require RCD protection.
Q10. How deep must an excavation be before edge protection becomes mandatory?
- 500 mm
- 1 metre
- 2 metres
- Any depth where a fall could cause injury ← Correct
Why: The Work at Height Regulations 2005 do not specify a height — any drop where a person could be injured by falling counts. In practice this means edge protection for almost all excavations.
Most common CSCS question types
CITB exam questions tend to fall into five recurring patterns. Knowing these patterns lets you read questions faster and spot the answer the examiner is looking for:
- Numerical recall. “What is the upper noise action value?” “What angle should a ladder be at?” The hardest questions if you have not memorised the figures — the easiest if you have.
- Hazard identification. A scenario describes a site situation; you pick the biggest hazard. The trick is identifying which option is most immediately dangerous, not just “a hazard”.
- Correct response / action. “What is the first thing you should do?” Almost always answered by “raise the alarm”, “stop work”, “report to your supervisor” — the cautious option wins.
- Regulation matching. Linking a duty or a procedure to the specific UK regulation it sits under (HSWA, RIDDOR, COSHH, CDM, Work at Height).
- Negation questions. “Which is NOT a control measure?” The single biggest source of mis-reads — slow down on these.
Tricky question patterns to watch for
- Almost-right distractors. CITB writes wrong answers that are plausible at a glance — e.g. “every 7 days” vs “every 14 days” vs “every 28 days” for scaffold inspections. Always pause on time intervals.
- “Best” questions. “Which is the BEST extinguisher for...?” Often two answers are technically safe; the question wants the most effective.
- Duty-holder questions. “Who is responsible for...?” CDM duty-holder questions trip up labourers because the answer is rarely “the operative”.
- “Should you” vs “Could you”. Subtle but important — the test rewards the safe and correct action, not the technically possible one.
- Compound questions. Two questions disguised as one — e.g. “What is the lower action value and what should you do at that level?”. Answer both halves.
How questions are scored
Each correct answer is worth one mark. Wrong answers and unanswered questions both score zero — there is no negative marking. The pass mark is fixed at 45 out of 50 (90%) across all three test versions since 2025 (the MAP test was previously 46/50). Select-two questions require both selections to be correct; getting one of two right scores zero on that question. Your total mark is calculated automatically the moment you submit, and the screen displays your pass or fail result instantly.
Pass mark — 45/50 (90%)
45 out of 50 means you can afford five wrong answers. That sounds generous until you sit a timed mock and realise how easy it is to lose four marks just to negation reads and time pressure. The strategic implication is clear: practise to a consistent 47+/50 in mocks before booking the real exam. Anything less and you have no buffer for test-day nerves.
Free 50-question practice
The sample questions above are a warm-up. For a real-test rehearsal, take our full free 50-question mock test — 45 minutes on the clock, instant score, topic-by-topic breakdown of where you lost marks. For a more aggressive practice session, the 100-question marathon mock test doubles the duration and builds stamina, particularly useful in the final week before booking.
Strategies for hard questions
- Eliminate first. Even if you do not know the right answer, you can usually eliminate two of four options immediately. That moves you from 25% to 50% on a guess.
- Re-read the question. A genuine 5-second re-read catches more “not”-style misinterpretations than any other tactic.
- Trust your first instinct. Research on multiple-choice tests is consistent: candidates change correct answers to wrong ones more often than the reverse. Only change if you have a clear new reason.
- Use the flag. Flag and come back. The first pass should be the questions you know cold — the second pass is for the hard ones.
- Never leave blank. A guess is a 25% chance at a mark; a blank is zero.
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